Commands of Jesus vs. Commands of Paul
Okay. Wow. Today again is crammed full of good and important stuff. A lot of it today is fiercely practical stuff about relationships, marriage, and sex. I think things are pretty straightforward in most of those areas, so I'm going to leave all of that for you to think about and study. If you have any questions on the practicalities or anything that's unclear, be sure to let me know and I'd be happy to try to clear things up.
I want to deal here with an issue that is perhaps less practical, but has more chance to be misunderstood and really confusing. Let's look a minute at 7:10-12:
"To the married I give this charge (not I, but the Lord): the wife should not separate from her husband (but if she does, she should remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband), and the husband should not divorce his wife.
To the rest I say (I, not the Lord) that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her."
So what's going on with this "I, not the Lord" business? Paul is making a distinction here between actually words/commands spoken by Jesus and those that are true and right, but not specifically given by Jesus:
"Paul’s parenthesis, “not I, but the Lord” (v. 10), alludes to words of the earthly Jesus widely known in early Christian tradition (cf. Mark 10:11–12)." [1]
The first "charge" Paul gives is one that Jesus has already specifically given. It has come "from the Lord". The second charge, however, did not come straight from Jesus. The context in which Jesus addresses the matter is not focused on the practical outworkings of every situation the might occur within a church. Paul, however, IS concerned with those practical outworkings and gives an authoritative ruling on what believers should do. Is Paul saying that his command carries less authority than the one from Jesus? I don't think so. I think he's mostly pointing out the difference to make sure people don't get confused and think that Jesus said the second thing too. This kind of thing happens all the time, even today. A person hears something good or reads it in a Christian book and later can't really remember and starts to think something along the lines of "I THINK Jesus said something about that...." Paul is making sure that they understand the the command is coming from him, not from an unknown saying of/writing about Jesus. The authority is still there, otherwise Paul wouldn't be writing it! Kruger explains it well:
"As Paul gives commands concerning marriage in verse 12, he offers the parenthetical terms “I, not the Lord.” Although some have understood this to be Paul’s making a distinction between his own lesser authority and Jesus’s higher authority, a closer reading of the passage reveals the opposite. Paul’s statement simply means that he has no direct command from Jesus on this particular subject and therefore must speak “on his own authority.” This makes it clear to the Corinthians that Paul has the apostolic authority to issue binding commands and thereby to speak for Jesus on topics that have not been directly addressed by him." [2]
This is why the NLT phrases it differently and a little more clearly as:
"Now, I will speak to the rest of you, though I do not have a direct command from the Lord." (emphasis mine)
Again - this isn't really dealing with the actual content of what Paul is "charging" them with, but the wording in the ESV can make the issue a little confusing and rightly understanding these things can have a big impact on how we understand and view the authority of the Bible and the Biblical writers.
Questions? Comments?
[2] Michael J. Kruger (2012-04-05). Canon Revisited: Establishing the Origins and Authority of the New Testament Books (Kindle Locations 4995-5001). Good News Publishers/Crossway Books. Kindle Edition.